Constitutional Development

Constitutional Development Regulating Act, 1773: End of Dual govt. Governor of Bengal to be the Governor – General of British territories of India. Establishment of Supreme Court in Calcutta. Pitts Act of 1784: This Act gave the British Government a measure of control over the company’s affairs. In fact, the company became a subordinate department of the State. Act of 1786: Governor General given the power to over-ride the Council and was made the Commander-in-chief also. Charter Act of 1793: Company given monopoly of trade for 20 more years. It laid the foundation of govt. by written laws, interpreted by courts. Charter Act of 1813: Company deprived of its trade monopoly in India except in tea and trade with China. Charter Act of 1833: End of Company’s monopoly even in tea and trade with China. Company was asked to close its business at the earliest. Governor General of Bengal to be Governor General of India (1st Governor General of India was Lord William Bentinck). Charter Act of 1853: The Act renewed the powers of the Company and allowed it to retain the possession of Indian territories in trust of the British crown. Recruitment to Civil Services was based on open annual competition examination (excluding Indians). Government of India Act, 1858: Rule of Company in India ended and that of the Crown began. A post of Secretary of State (a member of the British cabinet) for India created. He was to exercise the powers of the Crown. Secretary of State governed India through the Governor General. Governor General received the title of Viceroy. He represented Secretary of State and was assisted by an Executive Council, which consisted of high officials of the Govt. Indian Council Act, 1861: The Executive Council was now to be called Central Legislative Council. Indian Council Act, 1892: Indians found their way in the Provincial Legislative Councils. Indian Council Act, 1909 or Morley-Minto Act: It envisaged a separate electorate for Muslims. Government of India Act, 1919 Or Montague-Chelmsford Reforms: Dyarchy system introduced in the provinces. The Provincial subjects of administration were to be divided into 2 categories: Transferred and Reserved. The Transferred subjects were to be administrated by the Governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council. The Governor and the Executive Council were to administer the reserved subjects without any responsibility to the legislature. Indian legislature became bicameral for the first time, it actually happened after 1935 Act. Government of India Act, 1935: Provided for the establishment of All-India Federation consisting of the British Provinces and the Princely States. The joining of Princely States was voluntary and as a result the federation did not come into existence. Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre (Eg, Department of Foreign Affairs and Defence were reserved for the Governor General). Provincial autonomy replaced Dyarchy in provinces. They were granted separate legal identify. Burma (now Myanmar) separated from India.

Qauntitative Aptitude practice set 1

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.? (a) 30 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 28 minutes (d) 34 minutes 2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ? (a) 4096 (b) 8192 (c) 512 (d) 1024 3. Find the number missing at question mark: 10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149 (a) 100 (b) 103 (c) 78 (d) 128 4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure? (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 7. One fourth percent of 180 is: (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45 8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I? (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150 9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 …………… (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14 10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase? (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17 11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is …………. (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400 12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%? (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210 13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50 14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long? (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds 15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be ……. (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds 16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40 17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050 19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops: (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m 20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2 21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is …….. (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3 (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution 22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% 24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5 25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes 27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes 28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300 29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days 30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % 32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is: (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2 33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the (a) Interior of the triangle (b) Midpoint of the diameter (c) Exterior of the triangle (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle 36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle? (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180 37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle? (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre 38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r 39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3 41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45 42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr 43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32 44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm. (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm 45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, …… (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57 46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is: (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30 47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 = (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21 48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30 (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750 49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B? (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510 50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31 Answers 1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

GK Practice set 1

GK 1. In the absence of both the President and the Vice-President, who shall act as the President of India? (a)Prime Minister (b)Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c)Chief Justice of India (d)Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha ANS (c) 2. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism? (a) Robert (b)Proudhon Pierre Joseph (c)Karl Marx (d)Saint Simon Henri Claude ANS (c) 3. During the Mughal period, which one of the following trades were the first to come to India? (a) Portuguese (b) Dutch (c) Danish (d) English ANS (a) 4. Among the following States, which one sends the highest number of members to the Lok Sabha? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh ANS (ca) 5. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. A member of the Lok Sabha cannot be arrested by the police under any case when the Parliament is in session. 2. Members of the Indian Parliament have the privilege of exemption from attendance as witnesses in the law courts. Which of these statement is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ANS (b) 6. Who among the following was appointed by Ashoka to administer justice in his empire? (a) Shramana (b) Uparika (c) Rajuka (d) Kumaramaya ANS (c) 7. Consider the following statement : 1. Jainism in ancient India condemned the varna system. 2. Jain religious literature was written in Ardhamgadhi. 3. Mahavira admitted women into the order of his follows. Which if these statement is/are correct ? (a) G. G. Agarkar (b) M. G. Ranade (c) R. G. Bhandarkar (d) G. H. Deshmukh ANS (b) 8. Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian? (a) Banbhatta (b) Ravikirti (c) Pushpananda (d) Kalhana ANS (d) 9. Who among the following was the first economist to hold the office of Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs in the Union Finance Ministry? (a) Dr. I.G. Patel (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh (c) Rakesh Mohan (d) Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia ANS (a) 10.What does the abbreviation ATR stand for? (a) Action Taken Result (b) Actually True Report (c) Action Taken Report (d) Action Taken Rejoinder ANS (c) 11. Which of the following cities will host 2012 Olympics Games? (a) Paris (b) New York (c) London (d) Madrid ANS (c) 12. Why among the following was the founder of the Nyay Darshan, on of the six, major schools of ancient Indian philosophy? (a) Patanjali (b) Panini (c) Kapil (d) Gautam ANS (d) 13. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called "e-chaupal"? (a) ITC (b)Dabur (c) Hindustan Lever (d) Procter & Gamble ANS (a) 14. Th e decision to from the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) was taken at : (a) Rangoon (b) Bangkok (c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Tokyo ANS (d) 15. Th e decision to from the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) was taken at : (a) Rangoon (b) Bangkok (c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Tokyo ANS (d) 16. Give the correct chronological sequence of the following : 1. Russian Revolution 2. American War of Independence 3. Spanish Revolution 4. The French Revolution (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 3 1 ANS (b) 17. Which of the following States has the highest female literacy rate, according to 2001 Census? (a) Mizoram (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Meghalaya ANS (b) 18. Who among the following has been choosen the FDI Personality of the Year 2007 in Asia? (a) P. Chidambaram (b) Kamal Nath (c) Ratish Nayaar (d) Kaushik Rai ANS (b) 19. At which of the following places India's fist Net Route Server has been set up? (a) Mumbai (b) Noida (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad ANS (c) 20. Which of the following Fortune 500 Indian companies has suffered loss for the first time in the first quarter of 2005-06? (a) Indian Oil Corporation (b) ONGC (c) Reliance Industries (d) Bharat Petroleum Corporation ANS (a) 21. Answers Correct Answer User Answer (a) V.K. Duggal (b) Jairam Ramesh (c) Dr. I.G. Patel (d) Jagmohan ANS (d) 22. Which one of the following is not a land-locked country? (a) Afghanistan (b ) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) Thailand ANS (d) 23. Who invented polio vaccine (oral)? (a) Albert Sabin (b) Burkholder (c) Luise Pasture (d) Jonas Salk ANS (a) 24. Which one of the following processes is not related with chemical weathering? (a) Exfoliation (b) Carbonation (c) Hydration (d) Oxidation ANS (a) 25. Mist is caused by : (a) Dry ice (b) Ice at low temperature (c) Water vapours at low temperature (d) Carbon-monoxide in solid form ANS (c)

Bank General Awareness Practice set 1

General Awareness
 1. RBI's open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate ____ (A) Liquidity in the economy (B) Prices of essential commodities (C) Inflation (D) Borrowing power of the banks (E) All the above Ans (E) 2. Open market operations , one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means ____ (A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities (B) Issuance of different types of bonds (C) Auction of gold (D) To make available direct finance to borrowers (E) None of these Ans (A) 3. The bank rate means ___ (A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers (B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers (C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits (D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks (E) None of these Ans (D) 4. What is an Indian Depository Receipt? (A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank (B) A deposit account with any of depositories in India (C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company (D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by an Indian depositories (E) None of these Ans (C) 5. Fiscal deficit is ____ (A) total income less Govt. borrowing (B) total payments less total receipts (C) total payments less capital receipts (D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing (E) None of these Ans (D) 6. In the capital market , the term arbitrage is used with reference to ____ (A) purchase of securities to cover the sale (B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase (C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price (D) variation in different markets (E) Any of the above Ans (C) 7. The stance of RBI monetary policy is _____ (A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth (B) improving credit quality of the Banks (C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism (D) supporting investment demand in the economy (E) Any of the above Ans (E) 8. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage ___ (A) currency risk (B) interest rate risk (C) currency and interest rate risk (D) cash flows in different currency (E) All of the above Ans (D) 9. "Sub-prime" refers to_______ (A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR (B) funds raised by the banks at sub - Libor Rates (C) Group of banks which are not rate as prime banks as per Banker's Almanac (D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards (E) All of the above Ans (D) 10. Euro Bond is an instrument _____ (A) issued in the European market (B) issued in Euro currency (C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond (D) All of the above (E) None of these Ans (C) 11. Money laundering normally involves _____ (A) placement of funds (B) layering of funds (C) integrating of funds (D) All of (A), (B) & (C) (E) None of (A), (B) & (C) Ans (D) 12. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to ____ (A) strengthening international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy (B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation (C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction (D) All of (A),(B) & (C) (E) None of (A),(B) & (C) Ans (D) 13. Capital Market Regulator is _____ (A) RBI (B) IRDA (C) NSE (D) BSE (E) SEBI Ans (e) 14. In the term BRICS , R stands for ______ (A) Romania (B) Rajithan (C) Russia (D) Regulation (E) Npne of these Ans (C) 15. FDI refers to _____ (A) Fixed Deposit Interest (B) Fixed Deposit Investment (C) Foreign Direct Investment (D) Future Derivative Investment (E) None of these Ans (C) 16. Which is the fist Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ? (A) Reliance (B) TCS (C) HCL (D) Infosys (E) None of these Ans (D) 17. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India? (A) RBI (B) SBI (C) SIDBI (D) SEBI (E) None of these Ans (D) 18. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda? (A) Juhi Chawala (B) Kiran Bedi (C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Kapil Dev (E) None of these Ans (E) 19. The Branding Line of Bank of Baroda is ____ (A) International Bank of India (B) India's International Bank (C) India's Multinational Bank (D) World's Local Bank (E) None of these Ans (B) 20. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as ___ (A) Sun of Bank of Baroda (B) Baroda Sun (C) Bank of Baroda's Rays (D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda (E) None of these Ans (B) 21. One of the major challenges banking industries is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/ norms are launched by the banks by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ? (A) Know your customer norms (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Negotiable Instrument Act (D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act (E) None of these Ans (E) 22. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers . What is the full form of 'M' in 'M-Banking'? (A) Money (B) Marginal (C) Message (D) Mutual Fund (E) Mobile Phone Ans (E) 23. Which of the following is/are true about the "Sub-Prime Crisis" ? (The term was very much in news recently.) (1) It is a Mortage Crisis referring to Credit default by the borrowers (2) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers (3) This crisis originated of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (D) 24. Which of the following is NOT the part of the structure of the financial System in India ? (A) Industrial Finance (B) Agricultural Finance (C) Government Finance (D) Development Finance (E) Personal Finance Ans (E) 25. Which of the following is NOT the part of the Scheduled Banking structure in India ? (A) Money Lenders (B) Public Sector Banks (C) Private Sector Banks (D) Regional Rural Banks (E) State Co-operative Banks Ans (A) 26. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ? (1) Tax on Income (2) Tax on Expenditure (3) Tax on property or Capital Asset (4) Tax on Goods and Services (A) Both 1 and 3 only (B) Both 2 and 4 only (C) All 1,2,3 & 4 (D) Only 2,3 and 4 (E) None of these Ans (C) 27. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ? (1) To attract foreign investment directly (2) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals (3) To provide more capital to agriculture and allied activities (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (A) 28. Which of the following groups of the countries has almost 50% share in Global emission of carbon every year ? (A) US, China, India, South Africa (B) India, china, Russia , Britain (C) South Africa, Nepal , Myanmar (D) US, Russia, China & India (E) None of these Ans (D) 29. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is Future Trading ? (1) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges where in it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year (2) It is an agreement between two parties to buy and sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price (3) It is agreement between Stock Exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) All 1,2 & 3 (E) None of these Ans (B) 30. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA? (A) George Bush (B) Barack Obama (C) John McCain (D) Boll Clinton (E) None of these Ans (B) 31. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the _____ (A) President of Cango (B) Prime Minister of Uganda (C) President of Venezuela (D) Prime Minister of Brazil (E) None of these Ans (C) 32. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly _____ (A) Rs. 60,000 crores (B) Rs. 65,000 crores (C) Rs. 72,000 crores (D) Rs. 76,000 crores (E) Rs. 80,000 crores Ans (A) 33. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation the next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ? (A) 2010 (B) 2011 (C) 2012 (D) 2013 (E) 2015 Ans (B) 34. The world Health Organization has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ? (A) Tobacco (B) Alcoholic drinks (C) Junk Food (D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives (E) None of these Ans (A) 35. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ? (A) Japan (B) South Korea (C) China (D) South Africa (E) None of these Ans (C) 36. Which of the foloowing names is NOT closely associated with space Programme of India or any other country ? (A) CARTOSAT (B) NLS-5 (C) RUBIN-8 (D) GSLV (E) SCOPE Ans (E) 37. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with game of _____ (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Badminton (D) Football (E) Golf Ans (B) 38. Which of the following was theme of the Olympic Torch ? (A) Journey of Harmony (B) Green World Clean World (C) Journey of Peace (D) Jouney of Hunger-free World (E) None of these Ans (A) 39. Which of the following schemes is NOT a social development Scheme ? (A) Indira Awas Yojana (B) Mid Day Meal (C) Bharat Nirman Yojana (D) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (E) All are Social Schemes Ans (C) 40. Which of the following is NOT a member of ASEAN ? (A) Maleysia (B) Indonesia (C) Vietnam (D) Britain (E) Singapore Ans (D) 41. Which of the following awards are given for the excellence in the field of Sports ? (A) Kalinga Prize (B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (C) Arjun Award (D) Pulitzer Award (E) None of these Ans (C) 42. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ? (A) Cost of Living Index (COLI) (B) Consumer Price Index (CPI) (C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) (E) None of these Ans (D)& (B)

Reasoning Practice set 4

Directions—(Q. 1-5) In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given statements. Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows. Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows. Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows. Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows. Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow. 1. Statements: All faxes are alligators. Some alligators are jackals. Conclusions: I. Some faxes are jackals. II. All faxes are jackals. Ans : (D) 2. Statements: Some pen are fire-works. All fire-works are toys. Conclusions: I. Some toys are men. II. Some toys are fire-works. Ans : (E) 3. Statements: All herons are parrots. No parrot is swan. Conclusions: I. No heron is swan. II. Some swans are herons. Ans : (A) 4. Statements: Some bats are cats. Some cats are dogs. Conclusions: I. Some bats are dogs. II. Some dogs are bats. Ans : (D) 5. Statements: All writers are novelists. Some novelists are dramatists. Conclusions: I. Some writers are dramatists. II. Some dramatists are novelists. Ans : (D) 6. Introducing Priyanka, Saroj says that her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is Saroj related to Priyanka ? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Daughter (D) Aunt (E) None of these Ans : (A) 7. Pointing to a picture of a child Narendra says, "The brother of this child's mother, is the only son of my mother's father." How is Narendra related to the mother of the child? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Maternal grand mother (D) Aunt (E) None of these Ans : (E) 8. Pointing to a lady in the photograph Kaushal said, "She is the daughter of the daughter of the only son of my grand father." How is the lady related to Kaushal ? (A) Sister (B) Maternal aunt (C) Niece (D) Cousin (E) None of these Ans : (C) 9. Pointing to Manju, Gaurav said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father's father." How is Manju related to Gaurav ? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Sister-in-law (E) None of these Ans : (A) 10. A lady pointing to a man in photograph says, "The father of his brother is the only son of my maternal grand father." How is the man related to that lady? (A) Husband (B) Son (C) Father (D) Maternal uncle (E) None of these Ans : (E) 11. A lady pointing to a man in a photograph says, "The sister of the son of this man is my mother-in-law." How is the husband of the lady related to the man in the photograph? (A) Maternal grand son (B) Nephew (C) Son (D) Maternal grand father (E) None of these Ans : (A) 12. Kamini says, "Rajeev's grand father is the only son of my father." How is Kamini related to Rajeev ? (A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Niece (D) Grand mother (E) None of these Ans : (D) 13. Introducing a man, a woman says, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the man related to the woman ? (A) Uncle (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle (E) None of these Ans : (C) 14. Pointing a woman, Mahendra says, "The only son of her mother is my father." How is Mahendra related to the woman ? (A) Nephew (B) Brother (C) Son (D) Grandson (E) None of these Ans : (A) 15. Pointing to Kalpna, Arjun says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is Kalpna related to Arjun ? (A) Daughter (B) Niece (C) Wife (D) Daughter-in-law (E) None of these Ans : (C) 16. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, "He is the only son of my father's father." How is Snehlata related to the man ? (A) Mother (B) Grand daughter (C) Niece (D) Sister (E) None of these Ans : (E) 17. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Madhurendra related to the lady? (A) Nephew (B) Uncle (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother (E) None of these Ans : (D) 18. If P x Q means— 'P is the brother of Q', P ÷ Q means 'P is the son of Q' and 'P – Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ? (A) Q x R ÷ P (B) Q ÷ R – P (C) P x R – Q (D) P ÷ R – Q (E) None of these Ans : (D) 19. A lady pointing to a woman in a photograph says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is the woman related to the lady? (A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Friend (D) Aunt (E) None of these Ans : (E) 20. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says, "Her mother's mother is the mother of my father." How is the man related to the woman in a photograph? (A) Uncle (B) Maternal cousin (C) Nephew (D) Grand son (E) None of these Ans : (B) 21. If x means –, – means x, + means ÷ and ÷ means + then— 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100 = ? (A) 1/1760 (B) 76 (C) 176 (D) 186 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 22. If – means ÷, ÷ means –, + means x and x means +, then— 12 – 4 x 7 + 8 ÷ 5 = ? (A) 51 (B) 45 (C) 34 (D) 64 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 23. If + means x, x means +, – means ÷ and ÷ means –, then— 16 x 2 ÷ 4 + 7 – 8 = ? (A) 31 (B) 29/2 (C) 43/2 (D) 15 (E) None of these Ans : (B) 24. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then— 64 + 8 ÷ 6 – 4 x 2 = ? (A) 34 (B) 16 (C) –14 (D) 24 (E) None of these Ans : (C) 25. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then— 48 x 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ? (A) 3 (B) –5 (C) 35 (D) 16 (E) None of these Ans : (A)

Reasoning practice set 3

Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term. 1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ? (A) ADFH (B) CFHJ (C) CDEF (D) CEGI Ans : (B) 2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ? (A) FGKJ (B) HILM (C) HIKJ (D) HIML Ans : (B) 3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ? (A) CEXV (B) CXFU (C) EVFU (D) EWCX Ans : (B) 4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to— (A) UQSERA (B) QUSERA (C) UQSAER (D) QSUERA Ans : (A) 5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to— (A) RSTU (B) YZAB (C) DEFG (D) BCDE Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response. 6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney? (A) Nose (B) Blood (C) Urine (D) Lung Ans : (D) 7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother? (A) Child (B) Boy (C) Adult (D) Nephew Ans : (D) 8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ? (A) Nylon (B) Rayon (C) Silk (D) Terylene Ans : (C) 9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure? (A) Direct (B) Order (C) Initiate (D) Fascinate Ans : (D) 10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone? (A) Accident (B) Rain (C) Earthquake (D) Damage Ans : (C) 11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ? (A) Doctor (B) Blacksmith (C) Teacher (D) Lawyer Ans : (B) 12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ? (A) Obstruction (B) Drain (C) Pipe (D) Tap Ans : (A) 13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue? (A) Sky (B) Dark (C) Green (D) Bright Ans : (C) 14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ? (A) Pleasant (B) Feel (C) Anxiety (D) Satisfy Ans : (C) 15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ? (A) Light (B) Metre (C) Hour (D) Watt Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative. 16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ? (A) Disguise, Modest (B) Capacity, Woman (C) Man, Feminine (D) Brave, Mrs. Ans : (C) 17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ? (A) Blue, Swim (B) Bird, Water (C) Open, Hook (D) Tree, Colour Ans : (B) 18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ? (A) Brother, Brought-up (B) Father, Aunt (C) Cousin, Beautiful (D) Aunt, Father Ans : (D) 19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ? (A) Columbo, India (B) Kathmandu, Capital (C) India, Paris (D) Island, Harbour Ans : (D) 20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ? (A) White, Hunt (B) Elephant, Horn (C) Huge, Rare (D) Costly, Scarce Ans : (B) Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks. 21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ? (A) Furniture, Tea (B) Student, Horse (C) Wood, Hot (D) Chair, Plate Ans : (D) 22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ? (A) Sweet, Sour (B) Energy, Machine (C) Sugarcane, Milk (D) White, Sweet Ans : (C) 23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ? (A) Moon, Rainbow (B) Light, Cloud (C) Sky, Wet (D) Day, Night Ans : (B) 24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ? (A) Skull, Tongue (B) Hat, Lips (C) Hair, Voice (D) Turban, Saliva Ans : (A) 25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ? (A) Hand, Know (B) Experience, Feeling (C) Skin, Hear (D) Hair, Dirt Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group. Column I Column II FHIJ TW IJK PT IJLM SUW GHIKM RV GHI QRV FGI PR HIJ QTW IJL QSUW GIJ PQS 26. Which individual has all the above characteristics? (A) J (B) I (C) H (D) M Ans : (B) 27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M? (A) P, Q, T (B) P, Q, R, S (C) Q, R, S, T (D) U, V, T Ans : (A) 28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M? (A) S (B) B (C) Q (D) R Ans : (C) 29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K? (A) P, Q (B) Q, W (C) Q, R (D) R, W Ans : (B) 30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both? (A) Q (B) U (C) S (D) V Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer. 31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ? (A) Delhi (B) Kanpur (C) Chennai (D) Sholapur Ans : (C) 32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot? (A) Blush (B) Raven (C) Ash (D) Rust Ans : (C) 33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ? (A) Knife (B) Spoon (C) Fork (D) Bowl Ans : (D) 34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release? (A) Ignore (B) Pardon (C) Liberate (D) Quit Ans : (C) 35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose? (A) Bed (B) Violet (C) Plant (D) Red Ans : (C) Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40. 36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ? (A) Draft (B) Cow (C) Earth (D) Dry Ans : (D) 37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother? (A) Baby (B) Father-in-law (C) Son (D) Son-in-law Ans : (C) 38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green? (A) Tree (B) Purple (C) Grass (D) Leaf Ans : (B) 39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys? (A) Heart (B) Intestines (C) Testis (D) Neck Ans : (A) 40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten? (A) Window (B) Door (C) Block (D) Iron Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer. 41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck (A) Speed (B) Rooms (C) Wheels (D) Transport Ans : (D) 42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer (A) Meat eater (B) Jungles (C) Mammals (D) Cruel Ans : (C) 43. Sword, Gun, Pistol (A) Arms (B) Constable (C) Bullet (D) War Ans : (A) 44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred (A) Destruction (B) Envy (C) Human Characteristics (D) Quality Ans : (C) 45. Novel, Epic, Drama (A) Subject (B) Literature (C) Poetry (D) Knowledge Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word. 46. Wheat, Barley, Rice (A) Food (B) Gram (C) Cereal (D) Agriculture Ans : (C) 47. Coal, Iron, Mica (A) Rock (B) Minerals (C) Gold (D) Earth Ans : (B) 48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability (A) Quality (B) Dependability (C) Charter (D) Nicety Ans : (A) 49. Cap, Coat, Trousers (A) Smart (B) Shirt (C) Dress (D) Tailor Ans : (C) 50. Stool, Table, Chair (A) Bench (B) Furniture (C) Carpet (D) Office Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question. 51. Resignation : Office :: (A) Competition : Game (B) Illness : Hospital (C) Abdication : Throne (D) Moisture : Rain (E) Appointment : Interview Ans : (C) 52. Bunch : Key :: (A) Hound : Pack (B) Team : Competition (C) Beehive : Bee (D) Examination : Subject (E) Bouquet : Flower Ans : (E) 53. Profit : Loss :: (A) Success : Failure (B) Rupee : Paisa (C) Whole : Part (D) Multiplication : Addition (E) Adult : Child Ans : (A) 54. Sapling : Tree :: (A) Horse : Mare (B) Student: Teacher (C) Bud : Flower (D) Tree : Furniture (E) River : Brook Ans : (C) 55. Supervisor : Worker :: (A) Junior : Senior (B) Superior : Inferior (C) Elder : Younger (D) Debtor : Creditor (E) Officer : Clerk Ans : (E) 56. Malaria : Mosquito :: (A) Poison : Death (B) Rat : Plague (C) Epidemic : Bacteria (D) Cholera : Water (E) Medicine : Disease Ans : (D) 57. Paisa : Rupee :: (A) Kilogram : Quintal (B) Metre : Centimetre (C) Coin : Money (D) Weight : Ton (E) Rupee : Wealth Ans : (A) 58. Poet : Verse :: (A) Prose : Novelist (B) Author : Book (C) Novel : Prose (D) Publication : Editor (E) Summary : Paraphrase Ans : (B) 59. Water : Thirst :: (A) Food : Hunger (B) Sun : Energy (C) Appetite : Meal (D) Ice-cream : Cold (E) Poison : Death Ans : (A) 60. Pulp : Paper :: (A) Wood : Table (B) Cloth : Shirt (C) Yarn : Fabric (D) Iron : Steel (E) Wood : Sawdust Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning. 61. Trees and Forest (A) Ocean (B) Page (C) Books (D) Study (E) Library (F) Ship (G) Boys (H) Classes Ans : (C, E) 62. Constable and Police (A) Clerk (B) Hospital (C) Medicine (D) Mother (E) Girl (F) Doctor (G) File (H) House Ans : (B, F) 63. Brother-in-law and Sister (A) I (B) Youth (C) Female-companion (D) Wife (E) My (F) Beautiful Woman (G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law Ans : (B, G) 64. Cold and Hot (A) January (B) Monday (C) Year (D) June (E) March (F) Thursday (G) Month (H) August Ans : (A, D) 65. High and Low (A) Far (B) Rent (C) Next (D) Near (E) Distance (F) Fair (G) Last (H) Clean Ans : (A, D) 66. Unsuccess and Laziness (A) Study (B) Success (C) Day (D) School (E) Labour (F) Lazy (G) Game (H) Honesty Ans : (E, B) 67. Car and Garage (A) Horse (B) Grass (C) Bird (D) Water (E) Man (F) Stable (G) Animal (H) Hive Ans : (A, F) 68. Hand and Fingers (A) Foot (B) Eyes (C) Hat (D) Teeth (E) Head (F) Stomach (G) Nose (H) Hair Ans : (E, H) 69. Oxygen and Man (A) Petrol (B) Stool (C) Carpenter (D) Sky (E) Driver (F) Wood (G) Water (H) Fish Ans : (G, H) 70. Neat and Clean (A) Dirty (B) Tidy (C) Route (D) White (E) Wise (F) Ravi (G) Foul (H) Beauty Ans : (A, G) Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair. Column I (A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato (B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit (C) Mother, Sister, Female (D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker (E) Stool, Furniture, Table Column II (P) Apple, Banana, Fruit (Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals (R) Doctor, Painter, Father (S) Cow, Mammal, Animal (I) Soldier, Army, Civilian 71. (A) BP (B) AQ (C) CR (D) EP Ans : (D) 72. (A) BR (B) AT (C) CS (D) DP Ans : (C) 73. (A) DR (B) BR (C) ET (D) CS Ans : (A) 74. (A) BS (B) AT (C) AQ (D) DQ Ans : (B) 75. (A) CR (B) EQ (C) BQ (D) DS Ans : (B)

Reasoning practice set 2

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (A) Sand (B) Stone (C) Cement (D) Brick (E) Wall Ans : (E) 2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ? (A) White (B) Black (C) Red (D) Green (E) None of these Ans : (C) 3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ? (A) Father (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Brother (E) Cannot be determined Ans : (D) 4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of— 17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ? (A) 270 (B) 240 (C) 170 (D) 200 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y— (A) D (B) R (C) M (D) X (E) Y Ans : (D) 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (A) Silver (B) Gold (C) Nickel (D) Copper (E) Brass Ans : (E) 7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ? (A) 5#@7% (B) 8#@7% (C) 8#@%5 (D) 8@75% (E) None of these Ans : (B) 8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ? (A) 39 (B) 38 (C) 37 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Ans : (B) 9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) None of these Ans : (C) 10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ? (A) YTISNDE (B) YITSNED (C) YTISNED (D) YITSNDE (E) None of these Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions. T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ● U H 6 L 11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three Ans : (C) 12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (A) E@% (B) #78 (C) 5EJ (D) U6● (E) QKB Ans : (E) 13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three Ans : (B) 14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ? TL8 #6I 7HF ? (A) FUJ (B) JU● (C) FU● (D) JU5 (E) None of these Ans : (D) 15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ? (A) 1 (B) ● (C) F (D) 7 (E) None of these Ans : (A) Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer— (A) If only conclusion I follows (B) If only conclusion II follows (C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows (D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows (E) If both conclusions I and II follow Ans : (C) 16. Statements : Some cards are plastics. Some Plastics are metals. All metals are pots. Conclusions : I. Some pots are cards. II. No pot is a card. Ans : (C) 17. Statements : All chairs are tables. All tables are trains. All trains are buses. Conclusions : I. All tables are buses. II. All trains are tables. Ans : (A) 18. Statements : Some machines are computers. Some computers are calculators. Some calculators are phones. Conclusions : I. Some phones are computers. II. Some computers are machines. Ans : (B) 19. Statements : All spoons are bowls. Some bowls are glasses. Some glasses are plates. Conclusions : I. Some glasses are spoons. II. Some plates are bowls. Ans : (D) 20. Statements : Some envelopes are packets. Some packets are boxes. All boxes are parcels. Conclusions : I. Some parcels are packets. II. Some parcels are boxes. Ans : (E) Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer— (A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question (B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question (C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question (E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question 21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ? I. D reached before J and F but after B. II. B was not the first to reach office. Ans : (E) 22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ? I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’. II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’ Ans : (D) 23. How many children are there in the class ? I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top. II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita. Ans : (E) 24. How is Neela related to Deepa ? I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife. II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother. Ans : (C) 25. R is in which direction with respect to T ? I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T. II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow— I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ● II. E H L © 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1 26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 1 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ? (A) @KJ (B) C@J (C) C@5 (D) 3KJ (E) None of these Ans : (C) 28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ? (A) 7 (B) # (C) F (D) 1 (E) None of these Ans : (E) 29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ? H7 ©# 8B ? (A) U3 (B) $C (C) 3J (D) UC (E) None of these Ans : (A) 30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element from the right end in arrangement II ? (A) $ (B) B (C) 7 (D) L (E) None of these Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ●, $ and # are used with following meanings— ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’. ‘A ● B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’ ‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Give answer— (A) If only conclusion I is true. (B) If only conclusion II is true. (C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. (E) If both conclusions I and II are true. 31. Statements : G @ H, H ● Q, Q $ M Conclusions : I. M % G II. H $ M Ans : (E) 32. Statements : F ● B, B @ E, E # J Conclusions : I. F @ E II. J $ B Ans : (A) 33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F Conclusions : I. F $ H II. F @ R Ans : (D) 34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V Conclusions : I. L % V II. T % W Ans : (B) 35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T Conclusions : I. L % I II. L ● I Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information— Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same. J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on Tuesday. 36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ? (A) M (B) Q (C) L (D) Q or L (E) None of these Ans : (C) 37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ? (A) Sunday (B) Saturday (C) Tuesday (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these Ans : (A) 38. M conducts workshop on which day ? (A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Thursday (E) None of these Ans : (D) 39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ? (A) K–B–Wednesday (B) R–B–Monday (C) K–C–Monday (D) K–G–Sunday (E) None of these Ans : (E) 40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ? (A) R, Thursday (B) R, Tuesday (C) Q, Saturday (D) Q, Sunday (E) None of these Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer— (A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect (B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect (C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes (D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes. (E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause 41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to the neighbouring states. (b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest. Ans : (A) 42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres. (b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006. Ans : (D) 43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under dispute. (b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under dispute. Ans : (C) 44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive. (b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro. Ans : (B) 45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals. (b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas. Ans : (E) Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The candidate must— (a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks (b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum 65% marks (c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks (d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks (e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007. However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for— (i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation. (ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization. In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer— (A) If the candidate is to be selected (B) If the candidate is not to be selected (C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman (D) If the case is to be referred to President (E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action 46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her post-graduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview. Ans : (C) 47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006. Ans : (B) 48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983. Ans : (A) 49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview. Ans : (E) 50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview. Ans : (D)

Reasoning practice set 1

1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ? (A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 24 (D) 35 2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to— (A) Teacher (B) School (C) Student (D) Tuition 3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series— S, V, Y, B, ? (A) C (B) D (C) E (D) G 4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9 5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark— AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? (A) IYZ (B) HWX (C) IWX (D) JWX 6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? (A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 52 (D) 56 7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ? (A) 26 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 33 8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ? (A) VSS (B) URR (C) VTT (D) UTT 9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as— (A) CBIECD (B) CIBCED (C) CBICED (D) CIBECD 10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is— (A) 213310 (B) 213301 (C) 123301 (D) 012334 11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ? (A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink 12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shanu was facing ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller than Namarata but not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ? (A) Mihir (B) Paumpi (C) Namarata (D) Neelam 15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as Minal. Minal got more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ? (A) Minal (B) Rupali (C) Raja (D) None of these 16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with Raja’s mother ? (A) Sister in law (B) Grand Daughter (C) Daughter in law (D) None of these 17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ? (A) Uncle–Nephew (B) Father–Daughter (C) Father–Son (D) Grandfather–Grandson 18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ? (A) Tuesday (B) Earlier week’s Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Monday 19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ? (A) 2 : 20 a.m. (B) 3 : 30 a.m. (C) 3 : 55 p.m. (D) 3 : 20 p.m. 20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ? (A) 44 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 55 21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ? (A) 21st (B) 19th (C) 23rd (D) 20th 22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as— (A) MENOPM (B) MENOMP (C) NJOGPM (D) MNJOPM 23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as— (A) CJCEFQPYWC (B) CJGERQTYVG (C) CNCERQPCRG (D) GJGAVMTYVC 24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to… (A) Drink (B) Fish (C) Wash (D) Swim 25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………. (A) Injure (B) Peel (C) Prick (D) Attack Answers with Hints 1. (D) 2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is used by a ‘Student’. 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata = The tallest is Mihir. 15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali 16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the girl is grand daughter of Raja’s mother. 17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo. 18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the senior clerk received it on Thursday and the inward clerk received the application on Wednesday. 19. (D) The time for the next flight = 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00 = 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m. 20. (D) Number of boys in the class = (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5 = 55 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’. 25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.

THE SENTENCE

THE SENTENCE A group of words, which makes complete sense, is called a Sentence. Kinds of Sentences Sentences are of four kinds: (1) Those which make statements or assertions; as, Humpty Dumpty sat on a wall. (2) Those which ask questions; as Where do you live? (3) Those which express commands, requests, or entreaties; as, Be quiet. Have mercy upon us. (4) Those which express strong feelings; as, How cold the night is! What a shame! A sentence that makes a statement or assertion is called a Declarative or Assertive sentence. A sentence that asks a question is called an Interrogative sentence. A sentence that expresses a command or an entreaty is called an Imperative sentence. A sentence that expresses strong feeling is called an Exclamatory sentence. SUBJECT AND PREDICATE When we make a sentence: (1) We name some person or thing; and (2) Say something about that person or thing. Hence every sentence has two parts: (1) The part which names the person or thing we are speaking about. This is called the Subject of the sentence. (2) The part which tells something about the Subject. This is called the Predicate of the sentence. The Subject of a sentence usually comes first, but occasionally it is put after the Predicate; as, Here comes the bus. Sweet are the uses of adversity. In Imperative sentences the Subject is left out; as, Sit down. [Here the Subject You is understood]. Thank him. [Here too the Subject You is understood.]